Showing posts with label Does the Bible use the word Muslim?. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Does the Bible use the word Muslim?. Show all posts

Thursday, September 20, 2018

DOES THE BIBLE USE THE WORD MUSLIM?

Religion, Bible,Does the Bible use the word Muslim?,Luke 6:40,Bible Luke, Islam, Religion sucks,
This post is presented to refute the gross misuse of Luke 6:40 by Muslims who claim that verse uses the term Muslim when translated upon translation of another translation.

Once again, we have desperate Muslims performing linguistic gymnastics in an attempt to misrepresent the etymology of a specific word. Here we find Muslims citing Luke 6:40 as if it says the word Muslim. Apparently, Muslims don't see the fallacious aspect of their argument when making a claim that a specific word is the same based on similar sounds these words make? A rat must be a cat, and house a mouse because they sound similar?

Folks, please keep in mind that the Injil (Gospels) was first written in Greek, not in Hebrew or Aramaic, nor in Arabic.

Here is Luke 6:40, "The disciple is not above his master; but everyone that is perfect shall be as his master."

The Greek word that Muslims are jumping through hoops to perform their linguistic gymnastics is "katertismenos" derived from the word "katardidzo" according to the Greek lexicon. The following is how this word is rendered according to the Strong's Concordance as noted from Blue Letter Bible (www.blueletterbible.org):

1) to render, i.e. to fit, sound, complete
a) to mend (what has been broken or rent), to repair
i) to complete
b) to fit out, equip, put in order, arrange, adjust
i) to fit or frame for one's self, prepare
c) ethically: to strengthen, perfect, complete, make one what he ought to be

Yet, apparently, these Muslims in the midst of their linguistic gymnastics, forgot to talk with someone that knows how to speak Hebrew.

When one reads the Hebrew translation of Luke 6:40 is:

התלמיד אינו יודע יותר ממורו, אולם אם ילמד בשקידה ובחריצות יוכל להגיע לרמת ידיעותיו של המורה.

The Greek word “katērtismenos” is translated into Hebrew as “learn diligence”. Nowhere will you find the word “she’mushlam” in this verse, as this is not a proper rendering of the translation of the Greek word into Hebrew. Furthermore, even if one was to appeal to such an argument, the entire word as noted from these deceitful Muslims is she'mushlam which does not mean Muslim unless the one making such arguments purposely distorts the word to omit the "she"??? In addition, as noted by the definitions above, we find that the Greek word "katērtismenos" does not denote submission, which the 7th Century term Muslim implies. Therefore, these words carry different meanings, which means they are not the same nor did anyone in the 1st Century imply them to be a religious term associated with Islam.

Thus, this begs the question, if the so-called term "she'mushlam" means Muslim, then why was this term not used significantly elsewhere in religious texts to denote such a religion or people group? Why did it take until the 7th Century before the term was originated as Muslim in the Arabic? Why do Muslims have to appeal to a translation of a translation of a translation in an attempt to find a specific word, when the context of such a reading does not give premise to the usage of the 7th Century meaning? This is an etymological fallacy in which a reader attempts to misuse or misrepresent the original or historical meaning of a word or phrase as if it was similar to a more modern term, such as a Muslim attempting to read back a 7th Century term as if it was the same in the 1st Century.

Thereby, I challenge any Muslim to provide any ancient antiquity of evidence proving that in the 1st Century the term "she'mushlam" referred to one who submits? However, what is even more damaging is the fact the Greek word "katērtismenos" has as root καταρτίζω, which when it is translated into Arabic, it is بصيرة (baseera), meaning insight, able to see, sober or perception.

Yet, here is the final nail in the coffin of the Muslim who appeals to such an argument which is taken from their own Koran. Please keep in mind that Jesus was present on earth during the 1st Century, and His disciples were present during and after His ministry.

Surah 61:14 “O ye who believe! Be ye helpers of Allah: As said Jesus the son of Mary to the Disciples, "Who will be my helpers to (the work of) Allah?" Said the disciples, "We are Allah's helpers!" then a portion of the Children of Israel believed, and a portion disbelieved: But We gave power to those who believed, against their enemies, and they became the ones that prevailed.”

Surah 3:52 “But when Jesus became conscious of their disbelief, he cried: who will my helpers in the cause of Allah? The disciples said we will be Allah's helpers. We believe in Allah and bear thou witness that we have surrendered.”

Surah 3:55 “Behold! Allah said: "O Jesus! I will take thee and raise thee to Myself and clear thee (of the falsehoods) of those who blaspheme; I will make THOSE WHO FOLLOW THE SUPERIOR to those who reject faith, to the Day of Resurrection: Then shall ye all return unto me, and I will judge between you of the matters wherein ye dispute.”

Author: Trend Smith
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